UPSC Prelims 2019 | 2nd June 2019 | Exam Review, Analysis,Question Paper,Answer Key & CutOff

UPSC Prelims 2019(2nd June)
Dear Students, UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM. We will update Exam Review & Analysis,Question Paper, Answer Key and Expected Cut Off of UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination as it gets completed.

UPSC Prelims 2019: Exam Review & Analysis-
GS Paper Analysis 2019:
Current events of national and international importance: Around 25 Questions
History of India and Indian National Movement: Around 15 Questions
Indian and World Geography(Physical, Social, Economic geography of India and the World): Around 7 Questions
Indian Polity and Governance(Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.): Around 15 Questions
Economic and Social Development(Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.): Around 10 Questions
General issues on Environmental ecology: Around 5 Questions
Bio-diversity and Climate Change: Around 3 Questions
General Science: Around 10 Questions
CSAT Paper Analysis 2019:
English(Passage based questions): 30 Questions
Maths(Data Sufficiency- percentage based): 2 Questions
Maths(Mathematical Reasoning): 1 Question
Maths(Miscellaneous): 1 Question
Maths(Problem on Numbers): 8 Questions
Maths(Problem on Age): 2 Questions
Maths(Missing Number Series): 2 Questions
Maths(Permutation and Combination): 1 Question
Maths(Set Theory- Union and Intersection based): 2 Questions
Maths(Profit and Loss): 3 Questions
Maths(Average): 2 Questions
Maths(Mensuration): 1 Question
Maths(Percentage): 4 Questions
Maths(Geometry- number of parallelograms): 1 Question
Maths(Equations): 1 Question
Maths(Races and Games): 1 Question
Maths(Calendar): 3 Questions
Maths(Clock): 1 Question
Reasoning(Syllogism-3 statements and 3 Conclusions): 1 Question
Reasoning(Data Sufficiency- floor based puzzles type): 1 Question
Reasoning(Ranking- 2 statements based weight of persons): 2 Questions
Reasoning(Puzzles based on six students appeared in a test): 3 Questions
Reasoning(Alphabet Test- letter writing based): 1 Question
Reasoning(Mathematical Operation): 1 Question
Reasoning(Distance and Direction): 2 Questions
Reasoning(Coded Blood Relation): 1 Question
Reasoning(Cubes and Dice – face painting based): 1 Question
Reasoning(Number series based- preceding term and followed by term based): 1 Question
Reasoning(Alphabetical Series- regular type): 1 Question
UPSC Prelims 2019: Opinion/Exit Polls-







UPSC Prelims 2019: Question Paper-
#Q1:The Chairman of the public sector banks is selected by ______ ?
#Q2: What is cas9 protein?
Ans-Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell's genome.
#Q3: Consider the following pairs :
Famous place
River
1. Pandharpur :
Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli :
Cauvery
3. Hampi :
Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q#4:  'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
 It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
 It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)2 and 3
(c) I and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
#Q5: Consider the following pairs :
Wildlife
Naturally found in
1. Blue finned Mahseer:
Cauvery River
2. Irrawddy Dolphin :
Chambal River
3. Rustty-Spotted Cat :
Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
#Q6: What is X in the sequence
132,129,124,117,106,93,X ?
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 76

(d) 77
#Q7: What is X in the sequence
4,196,16,144,36,100,64,X ?
(a) 48
(b) 64
(c) 125
(d) 256
#Q8: Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement:
C_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in the gaps are?
(a) abba
(b) cbbb
(c) bbbb
(d) cccc
More Qs:
1. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is

(a)  269

(b)  271

(c)  300

(d)  302

2. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have only one face painted?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 10

3. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?

(a) 60%

(b) 45.5%

(c) 40%

(d) 37.5%

4. Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?

(a) Monday

(b) Thursday

(c) Saturday

(d) Sunday

5. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:

Statements:

1. Some rats are cats.

2. Some cats are dogs.

3. No dog is a cow.

Conclusions:

I. No cow is a cat.

II. No dog is a rat.

III. Some cats are rats.

Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?

(a) I, II and III

(b) Only I and II

(c) Only III

(d) Only II and III

6. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is

(a) 18

(b) 24

(c) 32

(d) 36

7. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

8. When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner supposed to run in this event?

(a) 14

(b) 15

(c) 16

(d) 16.5

9. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then

(a) Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.

(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset.

(c) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 500 with him after buying the handset.

(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 1000 with him after buying the handset.

10. In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birth?

(a) 1992

(b) 1994

(c) 1996

(d) 1998

11. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?

(a) Rs. 70

(b) Rs. 90

(c) Rs. 210

(d) Rs. 240

12. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.

2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an `Intellectual Property Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.

13. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritise the technology agenda.

(b) Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights.

(c) Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business.

(d) Present Indian circumstances do not favour the cultivation of genetically modified crops.

14. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.

2. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage - 2

Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature's opportunists.

15. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands of a country.

(b) Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are unnecessary.

(c) Sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are pointless.

(d) Foreign plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.

Passage - 3

Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance.

16. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multipronged solution.

2. Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training.

3. India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

Passage - 4

The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant,', unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways — the static Development Plan — that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city.

17. The passage seems to argue

(a) against the monopoly of builders and the interests of elite groups.

(b) against the need for global and smart cities.

(c) in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people.

(d) in favour of participation of peoples' groups in city planning.

Passage - 5

A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year.

18. The above passage seems to imply that

1. most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress.

2. much of modern Indian economy does not nurture sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods.

3. service sector in India is not very labour-intensive.

4. literate rural population is not willing to enter organised sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
UPSC Prelims 2019: Complete GS/Paper-I:




















UPSC Prelims 2019: Complete CSAT/Paper-II:




















Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Question Paper PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Question Paper in Hindi PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 CSAT(Paper-II) Question Paper PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 02:30PM to 04:30PM

UPSC Prelims 2019: Answer Key-

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 for Paper-1
Qs. No.
Set-A
Set-B
Set-C
Set-C
1
D



2
B



3
C



4
A



5
C



6
D



7
C



8
A



9
D



10
A



11
D



12
A



13
D



14
B



15
D



16
A



17
C



18
D



19
C



20
A



21
A



22
A



23
A



24
B



25
D



26
D



27
A



28
D



29
C



30
A



31
D



32
D



33
C



34
D



35
D



36
B



37
B



38
A



39
A



40
B



41
D



42
D



43
B



44
B



45
B



46
C



47
A



48
A



49
A



50
B



51
C



52
B



53
A



54
C



55
B



56
B



57
C



58
B



59
C



60
C



61
B



62
A



63
D



64
B



65
B



66
C



67
D



68
A



69
A



70
B



71
A



72
D



73
A



74
B



75
D



76
C



77
A



78
C



79
C



80
D



81
D



82
A



83
A



84
D



85
D



86
D



87
A



88
C



89
B



90
B



91
B



92
B



93
A



94
D



95
D



96
A



97
B



98
D



99
A



100
B







UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2019 for Paper-2
Qs. No.
Set-B
Set-A
Set-C
Set-C
1
C



2
C



3
A



4
D



5
C



6
D



7




8
B



9




10




11
C



12
D



13
A



14
A



15
A



16
A



17
D



18
A



19
B



20
B



21




22




23
A



24
C



25
B



26
A



27
B



28
C



29
B



30
B



31
B



32
D



33
B



34
A



35
A



36
C



37
C



38
A



39
B



40
D



41




42
A



43




44




45




46
D



47
C



48
C



49




50




51




52




53




54




55




56




57




58




59
D



60
C



61
A



62
A



63
B



64
B



65




66
B



67
D



68
A



69




70




71




72




73




74




75




76




77




78




79




80




Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Set-A Answer Key PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Set-B Answer Key PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Set-C Answer Key PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 GS(Paper-I) Set-D Answer Key PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 09:30AM to 11:30AM
Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2019 CSAT(Paper-II) Answer Key Set-B PDF conducted today on 2nd June 2019 in the shift of 02:30PM to 04:30PM
UPSC Prelims 2019:
upsc admit card: Download at https://www.bhaklol.com/2019/05/upsc-ias-prelims-2019-admit-card.html
upsc prelims 2019: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
upsc exam: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
global competitiveness index: The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness Report ranks countries based on the Global Competitiveness Index, developed by Xavier Sala-i-Martin and Elsa V. Artadi.
atal innovation mission: Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) including Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) is Government of India’s endeavour to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. Its objective is to serve as a platform for promotion of world-class Innovation Hubs, Grand Challenges, Start-up businesses and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology driven areas.
denisovans: The Denisovans or Denisova hominins ( /dɪˈniːsəvə/ di-NEE-sə-və) are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo.
himalayan nettle: Himalayan nettle, a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.
upsc exam date: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday.
denisovan: The Denisovans or Denisova hominins ( /dɪˈniːsəvə/ di-NEE-sə-və) are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo.
Aiib: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a multilateral development bank that aims to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. The bank currently has 70 members as well as 27 prospective members from around the world.
largest exporter of rice:
Below are the 6 countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice during 2018.
India: US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)
Thailand: $5.6 billion (22.7%)
Vietnam: $2.2 billion (9%)
Pakistan: $2 billion (8.2%)
United States: $1.7 billion (6.9%)
China: $887.3 million (3.6%)
upsc exam timing: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
service area approach: Service area approach (SAA) is an improved version of area approach of Lead Bank Scheme. Under SAA plan each commercial bank / RRB branch in rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. The designated branch of a bank has to meet the banking needs of its service area vis-à-vis forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels of the villages. The Service Area Approach scheme which was introduced in 1989 was reviewed in December 2004 as there are many criticisms that scheme consumes many restrictive provisions. In the review it was decided to dispense with the restrictive provisions of the scheme such as villagers need to contact specied bank branch for their credit needs. The following decision was taken by RBI and accordingly banks were directed to follow the revised SAA. As per revised SAA guidelines, borrowers have the choice of approaching any branch for their credit requirements. The commercial banks / RRBs are also free to lend to any borrower of any rural and semi-urban area except under Government sponsored schemes where Scheme itself provides for obtention of ‘No Dues Certicate’. Banks were further directed  to dispense with the procedure of obtaining ‘No Due Certicate’ from other banks/nancing institutions, for all types of loans including loans under Government Sponsored Schemes, except where Scheme itself provides for obtention of ‘No Dues Certicate’.  Instead of no due certicate, banks can check the credit information of prospective borrower through other channels like Credit information companies (CIBIL etc.), CERSAI, Information sharing among lenders, writing to other lenders with an auto deadline
upsc exam 2019: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
upsc 2019: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
cas9: Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell's genome.
global competitiveness index 2019: 80th is the India's rank at the Global Talent Competitive Index 2019. In this sixth edition, Switzerland continues to lead the 2019 Global Talent Competitiveness index, while Singapore and the United States come in second and third respectively as they did in 2018. The top three is followed by Scandinavian countries, Norway (4th), Denmark (5th), Finland (6th), and Sweden (7th). Yemen has finished at the bottom of this year’s index at 125th, just below Congo (124th) and Burundi (123rd). https://www.insead.edu/sites/default/files/assets/dept/globalindices/docs/GTCI-2019-Report.pdf
general data protection regulation: The General Data Protection Regulation 2016/679 is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals citizens of the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas
2 june 2019: UPSC Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday.
article 19: Article 19 is a British human rights organization with a specific mandate and focus on the defense and promotion of freedom of expression and freedom of information worldwide founded in 1987. The organization takes its name from Article 19 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which states
self respect movement: The Self-Respect Movement is a South Asian movement with the aim of achieving a society where backward castes have equal human rights, and encouraging backward castes to have self-respect in the context of a caste-based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy.
ias exam 2019: IAS Prelims 2019 Examination is scheduled today on 2nd June 2019, Sunday. Exam Timing of Paper-I(General Studies/GS) is from 09:30AM to 11:30AM and Exam Timing of Paper-II(CSAT) is from 02:30PM to 04:30PM.
tansen: Tansen (c. 1500 – 1586), also referred to as Tan Sen or Ramtanu, was a prominent figure of North Indian (Hindustani) classical music. Born in a Hindu family, he learned and perfected his art in the northwest region of modern Madhya Pradesh.
irrawaddy dolphin: The Irrawaddy dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is a euryhaline species of oceanic dolphin found in discontinuous subpopulations near sea coasts and in estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast Asia.
augmented reality: Augmented reality is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information, sometimes across multiple sensory modalities, including visual, auditory, haptic, somatosensory and olfactory.
Note: all the information above are collected from the internet.

UPSC Prelims 2019: Expected Cut Off-
Category
Cut Off
General
105 to 110
OBC
100 to 105
SC
90 to 95
ST
85 to 90

UPSC Prelims 2018 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
98
OBC
96.66
SC
84.00
ST
83.34

UPSC Prelims 2017 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
105.34
OBC
102.66
SC
88.66
ST
88.66

UPSC Prelims 2016 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
116
OBC
110.66
SC
99.34
ST
96

UPSC Prelims 2015 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
107.34
OBC
106
SC
94
ST
91.34

UPSC Prelims 2014 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
205
OBC
204
SC
182
ST
174

UPSC Prelims 2013 Official Cut Off:
Category
Cut Off
General
241
OBC
222
SC
207
ST
201

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